Endosperm MCQ

Q1. Endosperm development further leads to the development of which of the following

1.  nuclei

2.  embryo

3.  pollen tube

4.  micropyle

Ans. Here, the correct answer is option ‘b’ embryo. Following double fertilization, post fertilisation events begin. Events such as endosperm formation and embryo development, formation of seeds from ovules and ovary into fruit are categorised as post fertilisation events.

Q2. Which of the following undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.

1.  CNS

2.  SNE

3.  SEN

4.  PEN

Ans. Here the correct answer is option ‘d’ PEN. PEN-primary endosperm nucleus refers to one of the most common types of endosperm development. The development occurs via successive nuclear division that further gives rise to a free nuclei.

Q3. Coconut water is referred to which type of endosperm development

1. PEN

2.  cellular

3.  free-nuclear

4.  nuclei

Ans. The correct answer is option ‘c’ i.e. free-nuclear. Coconut water in tender coconuts, possess a free nuclear endosperm that is composed of nuclei and the surrounding white covering has the cellular endosperm.

Q4. Which of the following is the main function of endosperm

1.  Transduction

2. Protection

3.  Respiration

4.  Nourishment 

Ans. In this question the correct option is  ‘d’ nourishment. The cells of this tissue are completely filled with reserve food materials and these materials can be used for the nutrition of the developing embryo. Endosperm represents the name of any food laden tissue which is primarily meant for nourishing the embryo in seed plants.

Q5. In which of the following plants the endosperm represents a special tissue that is formed as a result of vegetative fertilization.

1. Angiosperms

2. Gymnosperms

3. Dichosperms

4. Parenchyma

Ans. The correct option is ‘a’ angiosperms. In angiosperms the endosperm represents a special type of tissue that is formed as a result of vegetative fertilization, triple fusion or fusion of a male gamete with diploid secondary nucleus of the central cell.

Q6. Which of the following supplies food to endosperm?

1. hilum

2. nucleus

3. micropyle

4. nucellus

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘d’ nucellus. The endosperm gets its food supply from the nucellus that disappears and ultimately remains as a thin layer outside the endosperm known as the perisperm.

Q7. Which is the most common type of endosperm?

1. Nuclear

2. Cellular

3. Single

4. Helobial

Ans. Here the correct option is ‘a’ nuclear. Nuclear endosperm is a very common type of endosperm. It is named so as it contains free nuclei in the beginning. For example, Coconut possess multicellular endosperm (which is known as coconut meal) in the outer region and free nuclear as well as vacuolated endosperm (is known as coconut milk) in the centre.

Q8. In which of the following types of endosperm, every division is followed by cytokinesis.

1. nuclear

2. single

3. cellular

4. helobial

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘c’ cellular. Each and every division of the primary endosperm nucleus is followed by cytokinesis. Thus, endosperm becomes cellular from the very beginning. This can commonly be seen in gamopetalous dicotyledons. Following the first transverse division, the subsequent divisions are irregular. Endosperm tissue cell do not have regular arrangement.

Q9. Helobial type of endosperm occurs in

1. monocots

2. leaves

3. dicots

4. flowers

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘a’ monocots. Helobial form is seen more commonly in monocots. It is an intermediate type of endosperm, an intermediate form between the cellular and nuclear types of endosperms.

Q10. State whether micropylar cells grow faster than the chalazal one.

1. True

2. False

Ans. The correct answer here, is option ‘a’ true, because traverse cytokinesis follows the first division of the primary endosperm nucleus that results in the formation of two unequal cells-a large micropylar and a small chalazal end.

Q11. The outermost proteinaceous layer of maize endosperm is known as

1. tunica

2. pericarp

3. epidermis

4. Aleurone

Ans. In this question the correct option is ‘d’ aleurone.

Q12. Where is glyoxysomes situated

1. palisade cells of leaf

2. endosperm of wheat

3. endosperm of castor

4. root hair

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘a’ palisade cell of leaf.

Q13. Which one of the following dicot plant lacks cotyledon

1. Pistia

2. Cuscuta

3. Ranunculus

4. Dianthus

Ans. The correct answer is option ‘c’ ranunculus.

Q14. Which of the following processes is known as the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma 

1. Polyembryony

2. Fertilization

3. Pollination

4. Microsporogenesis

Ans. Here the correct option is ‘c’ i.e. pollination.  Pollination refers to a process of pollen grains transfer from a flower’s anther to its stigma. Each and every living entity, along with the plants, has the purpose of producing offsprings for the following generation. Plants can generate progeny in a variety of ways, including through producing seeds. The genetic information required for the growth of a new plant is present in seeds.

Q15. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called

1. Apomixis

2. Parthenocarpy 

3. Polyembryony

4. Embryogeny

Ans. Here the correct option is ‘c’ polyembryony. Polyembryony refers to a phenomenon which arises when two or more embryos grow from a single fertilised egg. In humans, this results in the formation of two identical twins. This phenomenon is possible in both plants and animals.

Q16. A typical angiosperm anther looks like

1. Unilobed

2. Trilobed 

3. Bilobed

4. Trilobed

Ans. The correct option is ‘c’ bilobed. These anthers are known as bilobed anthers because they have two lobes. The anther’s transverse section aids in identifying this bilobed structure. A septum separates the two lobes of the anther. A bilobed anther has two theca and two microsporangia on each lobe.

Q17. Microsporogenesis refers to the formation of 

1. Megaspore 

2. Egg 

3. Microspore 

4. Embryo sac

Ans. The correct option ‘c’ microspore. 

Explanation:Microsporogenesis is the development of microspores inside the microsporangia of seed plants. A microsporocyte or pollen mother cell, a diploid cell in the microsporangium, performs meiosis and produces four haploid microspores. After that, each microspore matures into a pollen grain.

Q18. Pollination by insect is known as

1. Entomophily

2. Hydrophily

3. Ornithophily

4. Anemophily

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘a’ entomophily. 

Explanation: Insect pollination is known as entomophily. The most common biotic agents of pollination are insects. Pollinators include bees, which are the most common insect. Butterflies, flies, beetles, wasps, ants, and moths are among the other insect pollinators. To attract insects, flowers are vividly coloured and perfumed. The majority of insects pollinate big flowers. Calotropis, Ficus, Salvia, and other plants exhibit entomophily.

Q19. Removal of anther is known as

1. Bagging 

2. Pollination

3. Emasculation

4. Artificial hybridization 

Ans. Here, the correct option is ‘c’ emasculation.

Explanation: The process of removing anthers from bisexual flowers without damaging the female reproductive portion is known as emasculation (pistil).

Plant breeders use emasculation on bisexual flowers to obtain a chosen plant variety by dusting pollen grains from the desired variety onto the stigma of the emasculated bloom.

Q20. Embryo sac of angiosperm has

1. 7-celled 7-nucleate

2. 8-celled 7- nucleate 

3. 7-celled 8-nucleate 

4. 6-celled 8-nucleate 

Ans. The correct answer is option ‘c’ 7-celled 8-nucleate.

Explanation:One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, and one secondary nucleus make up the seven cells. The secondary nucleus has two nuclei, whereas each of the other cells has one nucleus.