Prelims Success Test Series 2024 is now Live!

How many can you answer?

Q1 Consider the following statements with reference to Government of India Act of 1935:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces as well as at the Centre.
3. The Central Government was carried up to 1946, as per the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q2 Consider the following events:
1. The designation of the Governor-General of India was changed to that of Viceroy of India.
2. Trade monopoly of the East India Company in India was abolished.
3. An open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants was introduced.
Arrange the above given events in the correct chronological sequence.
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2

Q3 Which among the following Acts was enacted by the British in India to counter the financial crisis caused by Napoleon’s Continental Blockade?
(a) Charter Act, 1793
(b) Charter Act, 1813
(c) Charter Act, 1833
(d) Charter Act, 1853

Q4 With reference to the Indian Independence Act 1947, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
2. It provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
3. Governance of each of the dominions and the provinces was to be carried on in accordance with the Government of India Act of 1935.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q5 With reference to Montague Chelmsford reforms, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It divided provincial subjects in two groups viz. transferred and reserved.
(b) It made the Central legislature bicameral.
(c) It introduced the system of communal representation for Muslims.
(d) It provided that the Secretary of State for India was to pay out of British revenues.

Q6 ‘Provincial Autonomy’ was the most redeeming feature of which of the following Acts?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) The Government of India Act, 1858
(d) The Indian Councils Act, 1892 

Q7 With reference to the Indian Councils Act 1861, consider the following statements:
1. It deprived the governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
2. It provided for the nomination of Indians to the Indian (Central) Legislative Council for the first time.
3. It empowered the Governor-General to issue ordinances during an emergency.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q8 Which of the following Acts introduced the concept of ‘Separate Electorate’ in British India?
(a) The Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) The Government of India Act of 1919
(c) The Government of India Act of 1909
(d) The Indian Councils Act of 1861

Q9 Which among the following acts introduced the portfolio system in India?
(a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1909
(c) Regulating Act, 1773
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

Q10 In the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the:
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Provincial Legislature
(c) Governor General
(d) Provincial Governor

Q11 Consider the following:
1. Safeguards for minorities, depressed, and other backward classes
2. Promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind
3. Proclamation of India as an Independent Sovereign Republic
How many of the above were part of the Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q12 Consider the following statements with reference to the Constituent Assembly that drafted the Indian Constitution:
1. The Constituent Assembly had no women members.
2. Each province and princely state were allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
3. The Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q13 Consider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly:

1. The idea of constituent assembly was first proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1935.
2. The constituent assembly was a sovereign body.
3. The members of the constituent assembly were elected indirectly.
4. There was no role played by the Muslim League in the constituent assembly

How many of the above given statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Q14 Consider the following:
1. Corrupt law enforcement machinery.
2. Weak judicial structures.
3. The complicity of the political class and media houses.
How many of the above are threats to the freedom of thought and expression?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q15 Consider the following:

1. Promotion of civil liberty.
2. Institutionalisation of checks and balances.
3. Promotion of constructive friction between organs of government.

How many of the above are the benefits of separation of powers in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None 

Download the Answer Key here