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Session 4 : January 2019 Most Important MCQs
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Sumant Kumar
B.Tech NIT Allahabad. Have written UPSC Mains Exam 3 times with Physics. Channel "Sumant Kumar" on Youtube. Telegram - "AdSumant"

U
Unacademy user
they can issue card with magnetic chip if they are debit card than why they cannot be used in ATM
sir i think payment banks cannot issue debit card as well
  1. unacademy January 2019 Most Important MCQs UPSC Prelims 2019 Delivered by : Sumant Kumar B.Tech in Computer Science & Engg, NIT Allahabad & Have written UPSC Mains twice with Physics Optional


  2. HINDUunacademy 58% i209 l Save JANUARY 2019 January 2019 News Editorials Articles Analysis By Sumant Kr, B Tech CSE, NIT Allahabad] Have written UPSC Mains twice Content: Section 1: MCQs: Current/Static Section 2: Analysis of News Editorials + Articles Section 3:Question for Answe Section 4 Discussion of Yest UPSC Prelims 2019 Practice: How/What to write Delivered by: Sum B.Tech in Comp Engg, NIT Allahabad ith 00:02 03:24 F By Sumant Kumar By Sumant Kumar 200 likes 18 comments e Share (Hindi) January 2019 The Hindu Editorials and Newspaper... (Hindi) January 2019 Most Important MCQs for UPSC CSE/IAS HNCI MCOs (Hindi) Mock Test i for UPSC Prelims 2018/2019 Sumant Kumar 6k Followers Follow 73 Lessons 2 Lessons 4.9 (233 ratings) Edit review Overview: Mock Test 1 for UPSC 01 Prelims 2019 Playing 57 ratings 22 reviews 13 ratings 6 reviews Session 1 Mock Test 1 for UPSC 02 Prelims 2019 13:48 Session 2: Mock Test 1 for UPSC 03 Prelims 2019 O 09.07


  3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Procedure of changing name of state: 1.The process can be initiated by the Parliament only. 2.The state assembly passes a resolution for such change and this passed resolution will be sent to Central government. 3.Constitution Amendment Bill is introduced in Parliament under Article 3 of Constitution to change the name of the state Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


  4. Consider the following statements with reference to the Procedure of changing name of state: Why in news: West Bengal state assembly has unanimously passed resolution to change state's name to 'Bangla' in all three languages Bengali, Hindi and English. The name change will only become official when resolution gets 1.The process can be initiated approval from Union Home Ministry and Parliament passes Bill by the Parliament only 2.The state assembly passes a However, by virtue of article 3 of Constitution, Parliament has power to resolution for such change and change name of state even if such proposal does not come from the this passed resolution will be cncerned state. sent to Central government. 3.Constitution Amendment B this passed resolution will be sent to Central government (Union Home is introduced in Parliament under Article 3 of Constitution amendment to Schedule 1 of Constitution. Thereafter, Constitution to change the name of the state Process for changing the name of a state can be initiated by state itself. If initiated by state assembly, it will first pass a resolution for such change and Ministry). Then Union Home Ministry prepares note for Union Cabinet for Amendment Bill is introduced in Parliament under Article 3 of Constitution, which has to be approved with simple majority, before President gives his assent to it. Thereafter name of state will be changed Example: Change in name of Orissa to Odisha Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 The Government of Orissa initiated this change in 2008 when it forwarded resolution passed by State Legislative Assembly to Union Government to change name of state from Orissa to Odisha This bill was passed by Parliament as Orissa (Alteration of Name) Act, 2010 to rename state. lo) 7 ony Answer: (B)


  5. Consider the following statements with reference to the MyGov Portal: 1.lt is citizen engagement platform launched by Central Government. 2.lt facilitates crowdsource governance ideas from citizens. 3.lt is managed by the National Informatics Centre. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


  6. Consider the following statements with reference to the MyGov Portal: MyGov Portal Jlt is citizen engagement platform 1.lt is citizen engagement platform launched by Central Government in 2014 to promote active participation of citizens in country's governance and development. launched by Central Government. 2.It facilitates crowdsource governance ideas from citizens. 3.lt is managed by the National Iits obiective is to create common platform for Indian citizens to crowdsource governance ideas from citizens. Informatics Centre, Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (D) Iit allows citizens to discuss and contribute on various government projects and plans. It is hosted and managed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC)


  7. Consider the following statements withAnswer: (D) reference to Payments bank: Payments bank is new model of banking allows mobile firms, supermarket chains and others to cater to banking requirements of individuals and small businesses to further enhance financial inclusion. It will be set up as differentiated bank and will 1) It allows mobile firms and supermarket chains to cater to banking requirements of individuals and small businesses It can accept demand deposits and provide remittance services and internet banking. It cannot undertake lending services. It can issue debit cards but not credit cards. 2) confine its activities to acceptance of demand deposits, remittance services, internet banking and other specified services but cannot undertake lending services. 3) 4) Payments bank can accept deposits maximum up to Rs 100,000 per account from individuals and small businesses. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 U They can issue ATM/debit cards but not credit cards and can also issue other prepaid payment instruments. They also can distribute non-risk sharing simple financial products like mutual funds and insurance products.


  8. With reference to Barabar caves, consider the following statements: 1. They were built during the reign of Samudragupta. 2. They were dedicated to the ajivika sect. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Exterior shot - Sudama cave entrance


  9. With reference to Barabar caves, consider the following statements: 1. They were built during the reign of Samudragupta 2. They were dedicated to the ajivika sect Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2 Ans B The Barabar Hill Caves are the oldest surviving rock cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Mauryan Empire. It was built during the reign of Ashoka. The Barabar Hill caves were gifted by Ashoka and his grandson Dashratha to the monks of Ajivika sect.


  10. Barabar and Nagarjuni hills near Gaya = Sudama and Lomus Rishi cave o being the earliest known examples in India of rock-cut method. o The facade of the Lomus Rishi cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. o The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back o The entrance is located on the side wall of the hall Carved Lomas Rishi cave entrance o The cave was patronised by Ashoka for the Ajivika sect. 2 important features of the caves of this period were 1) Polishing inside the cave. 2) Development of artistic gateway.


  11. Ajanta Caves Dlocated in Aurangabad district(Maharashtra) OAjanta has 29 caves. Olt has 4 chaitya caves datable to earlier phase, i.e. second and first century BCE and the later phase i.e. the fifth century. OIt has large chaitya-viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of the paintings of the first century BCE and the fiftlh century CE These caves are carved on a perpendicular cliff. As they are on perpendicular side, there are no courtyards. DAll the three forms of Art are combined in these caves : Architecture, Sculpture, Paintings. Fresco Mural Paintings inside the Cave: Padampani


  12. Fresco is a technique of mural painting executed upon freshly laid lime plaster. Water is used as the vehicle for the pigment and with the setting of the plaster, the painting becomes an integral part of the wall.


  13. JUnlike the Ajanta caves, Ellora cave temples were carved out on slopin side of the hill. Hence most of the temples have courtyards. Ajanta Caves Perpendicular Cliff Slope UThe sculptures at Ellora are monumental, and have protruding volume that create deep recession in the picture space. OThe images are heavy and show considerable sophistication. Cave no 16 is a rock cut temple, known as Kailash leni and it has been carved out of a single rock, a unique achievement of the artisans. Sloping Side Ellora Caves Perpendicular Cliff


  14. Elephanta Caves Junagarh Caves (Uparkot) located near Mumbai. It is ancient fortress. Its entrance, in the form of an archway is a fine were originally a Buddhist site which was later dominated by the Shaivite faith specimen of Hindu torana. Uparkot has many interesting Buddhist caves and was evidently the site of a Buddhist monastery in ancient times. It is contemporary with Ellora its sculptures show slenderness in the body, with stark light and dark effects. Nashik Caves: It is located to SW of Nashik, in Trimbak range of hills. There are 23 Buddhist caves belonging to Hinayana Period of Buddhist architecture and dating back to the 1st Century CE. These are called as Pandu leni meaning group of caves Montepzir/Mandapeshwar Cave: The caves are of particular interest as they are probably the only Bramhanical caves to be converted into a Christian shrine. Bagh Caves dated 6th century CE located near Indore(MP) There are 9 sandstone Buddhist Caves with beautiful Frescos and sculptured work


  15. Chola Sculpture: NATRAJ Shiva is associated with the end of the cosmic world with which this dancing position is associated. O In this chola sculpture he has been shown balancing himself on his right leg and suppressing the apasmara, the demon of ignorance or forgetfulness, with the foot of same leg. At the same time he raises his left leg in bhujangtrasita stance, which represents tirobhava that is kicking away the veil of maya or illusion from the devotee's mind. His four arms are outstretched and main hand is posed in Abhayahasta or the Gesture suggesting. The upper right hand hold & Damaru, his favourite musical instrument to keep on the beat tala O The upper left hand is held in dola hasta and connects with the Abhaya hasta of the right hand. His Hair flocks fly on both the sides touching the circular jwala mala or the garland of flame, which surrounds the entire dancing figuration.


  16. Which of the following state recently declared Pakke Hornbill Fest as 'state festival: a) Nagaland b) Assam c) Mizoram d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans D The government of Arunachal Pradesh declared the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF)-the state's only conservation festival, as a "state festival". DownToEarth Isue Download Print Archives SIGN IN in-depth Blogs | Videos Book Store Africa | Climate Agriculture Food RF WILDLIFE&BIODIVERSITY Arunachal govt declares Pakke Hornbill Fest as 'state festival' Four years after it was inaugurated with a number of objectives, Chief Minister Pema Khandu promises funding NEXT NEWS> By Rajat Ghai Last Updated: Monday 21 January 2019


  17. Global Warming Potential (GWP) compares the amount Global Warming Potential (GWP) of heat trapped by a certain mass of a gas to the amount of heat trapped by a similar mass of carbontrapped by a certain mass of a gas to dioxide, calculated over a specific time interval commonly 20, 100 or 500 years The GWP depends on which of the following factors? calculated over a specific time 1. The absorption of infrared radiation by a given species. 2. The spectral location of its absorbing wavelengths. 3. The atmospheric lifetime of the species. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 compares the amount of heat the amount of heat trapped by a similar mass of carbon dioxide, interval o The GWP depends on the absorption of infrared radiation bv a given species. o The spectral location of its absorbing wavelengths. o The atmospheric lifetime of the species also plays a dominate role in global warming potential.


  18. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? (a) A written and rigid Constitution (b) An independent Judiciary (c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre (d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States Ans D and the regional governments, if at all exist, derive their authority from the national government. Eg. Britain, France, Japan, China, Italy, Belgium, Norway, Sweden, Spain A federal government is one in which powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently and so on have the unitary model of government Eg. US, Switzerland, Australia, Canada, Russia, Brazil, Argentina and so on have the federal model of government.


  19. Which of the following feature(s) Answer: (B) does not ascribe to federal nature of Federal features of Indian constitution Indian polity? 1.Written constitution 2. Bicameral legislature. 3.Integrated Judiciary 4.Dual Polity. 5.All India services. include Dual Polity at union and states, written Constitution, supremacy of constitution, Independent Judiciary, Bicameralism division of powers etc. Unitary Features of Constitution are a strong centre, single constitution, Integrated Judiciary, Emergency provisions, indestructible states, Appointment of Governor, single citizenship, All India services, integrated audit machinery etc. Select the correct answer using the codes given below a)1 and 4 only b)3 and 5 only c)1, 2 and 4 only d)2, 3 and 5 only


  20. Global Risks Report is released by a) World Bank b) WTO c) World Meteorological Organization d) World Economic Forum Ans D The Global Risks Report 2019 has been released by the World Economic Forum (WEF). UPSC CSE Prelims 2014 Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook'? (a) The International Monetary Fund (b) The United Nations Development Programme (c) The World Economic Forunm (d) The World Bank Answer: (a) The International Monetary Fund UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 Question: Which one of the following issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report periodically? (a) The Asian Development Bank (b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (c) The US Federal Reserve Bank (d) The World Bank Answer: (d) The World Bank


  21. Global Risk Report Olt is an annual study published by the WEF ahead of its annual meeting Based on the work of the Global Risk Network, the report describes changes occurring in the global risks Dlandscape from year to year and identifies global catastrophic risks lt considers risks that are global in their nature and its impact. lt also explores the interconnectedness of risks, and considers how the strategies for the mitigation of global risks might be structured Olt is intended to raise awareness about the need for a multi-stakeholder approach to the mitigation of global risk. The criteria for what constitutes a global risk 1) Global scope A risk should have the potential to affect at least three world regions in at least two different continents. 2) Cross-industry relevance The risk has to affect three or more industries 3) Uncertainty There should be uncertainty about how the risk manifests itself within ten years combined with uncertainty about the magnitude of its impact. 4) Economic impact The risk should have the potential to cause economic damage of at 10 billion US$ or more. OThe report publishes list of risks which create more impact and which are more likely to happen The most impactful global risks are weapons of mass destruction, Extreme weather events, water crises, Major natural disasters, Failure of climate-change mitigation and adaptation The most likely global risks are Extreme weather events, large-scale involuntary migration, major natural disasters, large-scale terrorist attacks, massive incident of data fraud/theft


  22. Paisa = Portal for Affordable Credit & Interest Subvention Access which is a centralized electronic platform for processing interest subvention on bank loans has been launched for which of the following scheme? a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihoods Mission b) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Urban Livelihoods Mission c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana d) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) Ans B A centralized electronic platform for processing interest subvention on bank loans to beneficiaries under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) named "PAiSA Portal for Affordable Credit and Interest Subvention Access', was launched recently.


  23. Crude shocker can be rude shocks for economy: RBI PTI I Updated Jan 06, 2019, 05.51 PM IST NEW DELHI: A sudden surge in crude prices can upset the nation's key macro-stability parameters, as it can sharply spike the current account deficit (CAD), inflation and the fiscal numbers, whittling the benefits of higher growth, warns an RBl study. RESERVE BANK Context: The RBI has released a paper titled The Impact of Crude Price Shock on CAD, Inflation and Fiscal Deficit'. The paper outlines how the crude price shock will have an adverse impact on current account deficit (CAD), Inflation and Fiscal Deficit


  24. Highlights of the Research Paper Since India is heavily dependent on oil imports for meeting its domestic demand, it remains susceptible to global crude price shocks. * An increase in crude price>worsens the CAD o this adverse impact cannot be significantly contained through higher growth. o Hence a crude price shock will result in high CAD to GDP ratio o The crude price of USD 85/barrel in the worst case scenario will result in deficit increases by USD 106.4 billion, which is 3.61 per cent of the GDP on account of the oil shock o Every increase of USD 10/barrel in crude prices leads to an additional USD 12.5 billion deficit. This is roughly 43 bps of the country's GDP Hence every USD 10/barrel increase in crude price will shoot up the CAD/GDP ratio by 43 bps. if the price increase is passed on directly to the final consumers, it will result in increased inflation. O It is estimated that a USD 10/barrel increase in crude price at the price of USD 65/barrel will lead to a 49 basis points increase in headline inflation and a USD 10/barrel increase in crude price at the price of USD 55/barrel gives around a 58 bps increase in headline inflation. * If the government decides not to pass on the USD 1O/barrel increase in crude price to customers the fiscal deficit would increase by 43 bps. The actual impact on the inflation and fiscal deficit will depend on the level of government intervention through changes in tax and subsidy in the domestic oil markets.


  25. Silver Jubilee: Minister says SFAC's FPOs are better than that of Nabarg by Ajay JhaJanuary 18, 2019 in Agriculture 0 Consider the following statements about Small Farmers' Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) 1.SFAC has pioneered the formation of Farmer Producer Organizations/Farmer Producer Companies. 2.lt offers Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme to FPCs to improve availability of working capital 3.It implements e-Nam. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


  26. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Roigar Protsahan Yojana 1.The Government pays the employers' EPS contribution of 8.33%, for the new employees, for the first five years of their employment. 2.The scheme is being implemented by Ministry of Finance. 3.New employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/-per month are not eligible Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (C) Explanation: The PMRPY Scheme aims to incentivise employers for employment generation by the Government paying the employers, EPS contribution of 8.33%, for the new employees, for the first three years of their employment and is proposed to be made applicable for unemployed persons that are semi-skilled and unskilled. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and is operational since August, 2016. The PMRPY Scheme is targeted for employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.


  27. Which among the following constitute Crisil downgrades heis knon intetl as the eig Three' among Credit Rating Agencies? 1.Standard & Poor's aults on NCDs 2.Moody's 3.FICCI's Ratings 4.ARC Ratings Select the correct answer using the codes given below ) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4


  28. With reference to "Chilka Lake", recently in news, which of the following statement is/are correct? Ans C .Lakhs of migratory birds have 1.lt is Asia's largest brackish water lagoon. 2.It is situated along the east coast of India in theAsia's largest brackish water state of West Bengal. 3.The Irrawaddy dolphin is the flagship species of is situated along the east coast Chilika lake. made their way to the Chilika Lake, lagoon. of India in the state of Odisha flagship species of Chilika lake. Select the correct answer using the code given below. The Irrawaddy dolphin is the a.1 and 2 only b.2 and 3 only c.1 and 3 only d.1, 2 and 3


  29. DownToEarth Issue Download Print Archives In-depth logs V Book Store Climate Agriculture Africa Food Mission to conserve indigenous cow breeds kicked off Rs 150- crore allocated in current financial year Rashtriya Gokul Mission Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is implementing the scheme to conserve and develop indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner. V The scheme comprises of two components 1.National Programme for Bovine Breeding (NPBB) and 2.National Mission on Bovine Productivity (NMBP)


  30. Objectives of the Mission Development and conservation of indigenous breeds. DUndertaking breed improvement programmes for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock. Enhancing milk production and productivity. JUpgrading nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi ODistributing disease free high genetic merit bulls for natural service.