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AFCAT Eligibility Criteria

Get the complete AFCAT eligibility criteria here. It is necessary for the candidates to meet the criteria for applying to this recruitment.

AFCAT 2022 Eligibility

Candidates have to be eligible in terms of academic and medical requirements for the Indian Air Force exam or Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) 2022. This article will provide you with the complete eligibility criteria that candidates need to follow to appear for the AFCAT 2022 examination. 

One can join the Air Force Academy as a graduate/engineer and pursue a career in the flying branch. Graduates/ Engineers can enter the Flying branch through one of these three routes: 

A. CDSE (Combined Defence Services Examination)-(Only Men)

Candidates applying via CDSE mode will avail of permanent commission. They should fulfil the following eligibility criteria to appear in CDSE:

  • Candidate should be aged between 20 to 24 years 
  • Only candidates with Indian nationality can apply
  • Candidates should be single

Educational criteria:

  • Candidate must be a graduate from a recognized/esteemed university with Mathematics and Physics at 10+2 level or must have a Bachelor’s degree in Technology/Electronics
  • Candidates in their final semester/year can also apply
  • They should submit their degree certificate within the timeframe mentioned in the advertisement
  • There is no percentage bar for CDSE entry

Note: Advertisement schedule – Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) releases advertisements in the months of August and November.

B. NCC special entry 

Note: Both men and women can apply for National Cadet Corps (NCC) special entry via online mode.

  • Candidates can apply to the Flying Branch of Indian Air Force if they are certificate holders of Air Wing Senior Division ‘C’ of the National Cadet Corps
  • Both men and women are eligible to join through NCC
  • Both men and women are eligible for short service commission while only men are eligible for permanent commission
  • Only candidates with Indian nationality are eligible
  • Only single or unmarried candidates are eligible 
  • Candidates should be aged between 20 to 24 years (at the time of course commencement)
  • The upper age limit for applicants who hold a current commercial pilot license issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) (India) is 26 years
Educational Qualification:
  • Candidates need to have a minimum of 50% marks each in Maths and Physics at the senior secondary education level (10+2)
  • An applicant who wants to apply for a flying branch needs to be a graduate or must have BE/B Tech as a four-year program from a recognized university with an aggregate of a minimum of 60% marks or must have qualified Section A and B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers or Aeronautical Society of India with a minimum of 60% marks
  • Candidates who want to apply for ground duty need to be a graduate or must have BE/B Tech as a four-year program from a recognized university with an aggregate of a minimum of 50% marks or must have qualified Section A and B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India
  • The students who are in their final year or semester are eligible to apply, but they have to provide the degree certificate within the timeframe specified in the advertisement

Note: IAF releases advertisements for the NCC special entry each year in the months of June and December. 

C. AFCAT entry – Short Service Commission 

Both men and women can apply for AFCAT for the Short Service Commission (SSC) in the flying branch. The maximum time for service in SSC is 14 years and no further extension is allowed.

Candidates have to follow the below-mentioned eligibility criteria – 

  1. The candidate’s age needs to be within the age group of 20 to 24 years. The upper age limit for applicants who hold a current commercial pilot license issued by DGCA (India) is 26 years
  2. The nationality of the candidate should be Indian
  3. The candidates should be single or unmarried 

      In terms of educational criteria- 

  • Candidates need to have a minimum of 50% marks each in Maths and Physics at the senior secondary education level (10+2)
  • Applicant needs to be a graduate or must have BE/B Tech as a four-year program from a recognized university with an aggregate of a minimum of 60% marks or must have qualified Section A and B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers or Aeronautical Society of India with an aggregate of minimum 60% marks
  • Students in their final year or semester are eligible to apply, but they have to provide the degree certificate within the timeframe specified in the advertisement

Note: IAF releases advertisements for the SSC special entry each year in the months of June and December. 

Irrespective of the examination mode candidates are appearing in, they need to meet the physical and medical eligibility criteria. The medical and physical eligibility criteria are mentioned below: 

There are certain general instructions that candidates need to be aware of at the time of applying for the AFCAT examination. They are as follows:

  1. An applicant will not be considered physically fit until the entire evaluation demonstrates that he is physically and intellectually capable of withstanding considerable physical and mental strain for extended periods of time in any environment and part of the world.
  2. If any sickness or handicap is discovered during the training phase that may affect the flight cadet’s eventual physical fitness or medical condition, such instances shall be forwarded to IAM/MH experts as soon as possible, with notification to the DGMS office. If the condition or impairment is regarded as permanent at IAM, the cadet must make an early decision to proceed or not proceed in the stream.

Specifically, in terms of the assessments, here are the criteria that candidates need to fulfill. These are: 

  1. The residual effects of fractures/ previous injuries will be examined for any functional impairment. A candidate will be determined fit if he is found to be free of any such functional defect/impairment. 
  2. Cervical ribs that do not have any neurovascular injuries will be allowed.
  3. Mismatch of the face and head, which interferes with the appropriate fitting of the oxygen mask and helmet, may result in rejection.
  4. With a minimum range of expansion of 5 cm, the chest should be well-shaped and robust.
  5. Entrance into ground duty branches will need a minimum height of 157.5 cm. 

There is a height relaxation of 5 cm for Gorkhas and candidates from India’s north-eastern states as well as those from Uttarakhand’s mountainous districts and a relaxation of 2 cm for candidates from Lakshadweep Islands.

  1. Any scars in the pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as demonstrated by a visible opacity on a chest radiograph, may result in rejection.
  2. Pleurisy with Effusion is a condition in which the body produces a lot of fluid. Any considerable persistent pleural thickening may result in rejection.
  3. Repeated bouts of cough, wheezing, or bronchitis might be symptoms of chronic bronchitis or other respiratory tract diseases. Pulmonary function tests may be performed in such cases to determine the gravity of the condition.
  4. A history of bronchial asthma may result in rejection.
  5. In terms of the liver, the following conditions will be considered fit:
  • Normal echo anatomy of the liver, IHBR, CBD, portal, and hepatic veins with liver span not exceeding 15 cm in the midclavicular line is deemed fit.
  • A solitary simple cyst approximately up to 2.5 cm in diameter is acceptable. 
  •  

Liver conditions that are considered unfit: 

Fatty liver, hepatomegaly, solitary cyst with thick walls, septations, and debris, multiple hepatic cysts of any size, hemangioma > 02cm, and portal vein thrombosis. 

  1. Any previous ulcers or infections of the mouth, gums,  tongue, or throat, as well as any severe dental alterations, will be taken note of. 
  2. Candidates whose dental standards do not meet the established criteria will be disqualified.
  3. Candidates who have had a splenectomy, regardless of the reason for the procedure, are ineligible. Any degree of splenomegaly is grounds for rejection.
  4. Candidates with free field hearing impairment will be rejected.
  5. Chronic otitis externa with exostoses or excessively thin meatii will be rejected.
  6. Twelve weeks following surgery, tympanoplasty Type I is permitted if the ear clearance test in the altitude chamber is normal.
  7. The most common causes of rejection are visual impairments and medical ophthalmic diseases.

For women candidates, the following conditions will be considered unfit: 

  1. Rejection will occur if there is a lump in the breast. Using a surgical professional and a normal histopathological report, cases with Fibroadenoma breast after successful surgical excision may be declared fit.
  2. Galactorrhoea may render the candidate temporarily inactive. The merits of the case and the opinion of the pertinent professional may be used to determine fitness following investigation/treatment.
  3. Any anomaly of the external genitalia will be evaluated on its own merits. Significant hirsutism, particularly when combined with a masculine pattern of hair development, will result in rejection.

The height and weight parameters that men and women need to meet are as follows: 

  1. In Flying Branch, the minimum permissible height for men and women applicants is 162.5 cms, with leg lengths ranging from 99 to 120 cms. 
  2. Thigh Length: maximum 64 cms, sitting height: minimum 81.5 cms, maximum 96 cms 
  3. Male applicants in the Ground Duty branch must be at least 157.5 cm tall. The minimum height requirement for female applicants is 152 cm. 
  4. The minimum acceptable height for Gorkhas and people from hilly areas, such as Garhwal and Kumaon, is 5 cm lower. 
  5. The minimum acceptable height for applicants from Lakshadweep is 2 cm lower i.e. than what is otherwise applicable.

Vision parameters are as follows: 

Branch

Maximum Limits of Refractive Error

Visual Acuity Errors

Colour Vision

F(P) including WSOs

Hypermetropia: + 2.0D Sph Manifest Myopia: Nil Retinoscopic myopia: – 0.5 in any meridian permitted Astigmatism: + 0.75D Cyl (within + 2.0D Max)

6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for Hypermetropia

CP-I

Aircrew other than F(P)

Hypermetropia: +3.5D Sph Myopia: -2.0D Sph Astigmatism: + 0.75D Cyl

6/24 in one eye and 6/36 in other, correctable to 6/6 and 6/9

CP-I

Adm/Adm (ATC)/ Adm (FC)

Hypermetropia: + 3.5D Sph Myopia: -3.5D Sph Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl in any meridian

Corrected visual acuity should be 6/9 in each eye.

CP-II

AE(M)

AE(L)

Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl in any meridian

Corrected visual acuity should be 6/9 in each eye. Wearing of glasses will be compulsory when advised

CP-II

Met

Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph Astigmatism: + 2.50 D Cyl

Corrected visual acuity should be 6/9 in each eye. Wearing of glasses will be compulsory when advised

CP-II

Accts/ Lgs/Edn

Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph Astigmatism: + 2.50 D Cyl

Corrected visual acuity should be 6/6 in the better eye and 6/18 in the worse eye. Wearing Glasses will be compulsory.

CP-III

Standard muscle parameters are as follows: 

Test

Fit

Temporarily fit

Permanently Unfit

Maddox Rod Test at 6 meters

Exo- 6 Prism D Eso- 6 Prism D Hyper- 1 Prism D Hypo- 1 Prism D

Exo- Greater than 6 prism D Eso- Greater than 6 prism D Hyper- Greater than 1 prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D

Uniocular suppression Hyper/Hypo more than 2 prism D

Maddox Rod Test at 33 cm

Exo-16 Prism D Eso- 6 Prism D Hyper- 1 Prism D Hypo- 1 Prism D

Exo- Greater than 16 prism D Eso- Greater than 6 prism D Hyper- Greater than 1 prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D

Uniocular suppression Hyper/Hypo more than 2 prism D

Handheld Stereoscope

All of the BSV grades

Poor Fusional reserves

Absence of SMP, fusion Stereopsis

Convergence

Up to 10 cm

Up to 15 cm with effort

Greater than 15 cm with effort

Cover Test for Distance and Near

Latent divergence /convergence recovery rapid and complete

Compensated heterophoria/ trophia likely to improve with treatment /persisting even after treatment

Compensated heterophoria