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86 to 100 MCQs Commerce July 2018 (in Hindi)
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Here Navdeep Kaur is discussing 86 to 100 MCQs on Commerce July 2018 paper 2 99th Ans is 15th June

Navdeep Kaur is teaching live on Unacademy Plus

Navdeep Kaur
JRF Awardee, NET qualified with over 7 years of teaching experience & Expert in NTA UGC NET JRF.

U
Unacademy user
Thank you very much Sir!!
Abhilash Kumar
10 months ago
👍
Hello Mam , as you know aaj cbse ne answer key releases kari hain . Mere kuch answers apke answers k according bilkul sahi hain but cbse k official key k according wrong Aa rhe h n mujhe personally Aisa lgta hain ki cbse walo ne hi wrong answer diya hain toh ab main unko challenge krna chahti Hun , Mam please help us how to do so. Because it was my first time and I don’t have any idea how to do that. I see that option to challenge answers key but then mujhe utna samjh nhi Aa rha :(
hello mam 100. ka ans 1 h plz recheck
mam 99 ka ans 15 june aayega.. inhone first installment ki due date puchi h so 31st march ko yr finish ho jata h n next yr me first due date 15th june
Navdeep Kaur
a year ago
yes u r right
very nice mam ,thanku very much
  1. Follow me on Unacademy.com Navdeep Kaur Download Unacademy App unacademy https://unacademy.com/user/navclasses/ Rate, Review, Comment, Share


  2. Home Explore Plus Login Signup Navdeep Kaur By Navdeep Kaur By Navdeep Kaur (Hindi) General Awareness and Test Series (Hindi) Test Series and General Awareness for CBSE UGC NET 2018 (Hindi) Polity Crash Course Paper 1 And Part 2 15 Lessons 19 Lessons 17 Lessons 1 ratings16 reviews 87 ratings 21 reviews 2 ratings 21 reviews By Navdeep Kaur By Navdeep Kaur By Navdeep Kaur (Hindi) Crash Course on People and Environment (Hindi) Paper 1 Revision and GA MCQs (Hindi) Coding Decoding for UGC NET Paper 1


  3. CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 Commerce Paper 2 Part 4 Ans. Key Exam Analysis 76 to 100 MCQs


  4. 86. Match the items of List - II with the items of List - I relating to training, and select the code of correct matching. List I List II ( Strategies or styles of instructions (ii) Ultimate knowledge level with which trainee leaves the (a) Andragogy (b) Pedagogy (c) Terminal behaviour (ii) Lack of commitment of management and scarcity of (d) Training impediments (iv) Art and Science of training the adults training sessions resources in training Code: IV


  5. 87. Which of the following statements does not st and as a principle of compensation administration ? (L) An enterprise should have a clear -cut plan to determine differential pay level in terms of divergent job requirements People and jobs should never be mingled. The compensation system should be designed with subjectivity with respect to individual (3) skill sets exercised from time to time. (4) There should be established wage grievance handling procedures.


  6. 88. Match the items of List-I with the items of List- I relating to industrial relations and select the code of correct matching. List I List II (a) Healthy labour-management relationsIndustrial Disputes Act (b) Industrial Peace Law (i) Guiding principles for a grievance procedure (c) Industrial Democracy (d) National Commission on Labour, 1969 (iv) Voluntary arbitration and responsible (iii) Workers' participation in management trade union Code: (iV) ( j) ) iV


  7. In recent years which amo investment in India? ng the following countries has been the largest source of foreign 89. (1) Australia apan (3) China 4 Mauritius "Mauritius was the largest source of FDI in India (21.8 per cent share at market value) followed by the USA, the UK, Singapore and Japan


  8. 90. Assertion (A): The Government of India has bee n opening up domestic market to foreign players in baby steps. Reasoning (R): Allowing foreign firms free play in India's retail sector has always been a political hot potato. Code : (R) both are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A) 1)(A) and (R) both are correct (2) (A) and (R) both are correct; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A). (3) (A) and (R) both are incorrect. (4) (A) is correct ; but (R) is incorrect.


  9. 91. Select the corect code of the folliwiatents bing correct or incorrect. Statement () A Global Depositary Receipt (GDR) is a bank certificate issued in more than Statement (II): A GDR is very similar to American Depositary Receipt (ADR) Statement (II) : GDRs are called EDRs when private markets are attempting to obtain Euros. one country for shares in a foreign company Code: Statements (I), (II) and (II) are correct. 2) Statements (1) and (1) are correct but (111) is incorrect. (3) Statements (I) and (III) are correct but (II) is incorrect. (4) Statements (I) and (II) are correct but (1) is incorrect.


  10. 2. In December 1999, European commission members signed a treaty that committed them to adopting a common currency known as Euro. This is better known as (1) Treaty of Rome (3) Treaty of Lisbon 2Treaty of Maastric (4) Treaty of London The Treaty of Amsterdam, officially the Treaty of Amsterdam amending the Treaty on European Union, the Treaties establishing the European Communities and certain related acts, was signed on 2 October 1997, and entered into force on 1 May 1999; it made substantial changes to the Treaty of Maastricht, which had been signed in 1992


  11. Select the correct code of the following statenents bein Statement (1): The "law of one price 93. Select the c states that in co law of one pr to trade, ts and barthe same price when their price is expr etitive markets free of transportation dentical products sold in different countries costs and barriers so same currency ket has no impediments to the free flow of goods and services, such as trade barriers Code: (1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect. (2) Statement (II) is correct but () is incorrect. (3)Bo (4) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect. th statements (I) and (II) are correct.


  12. 93 The efficient market hypothesis (EMH) originated in the 1960s and thanks to the work of economist Eugene Fama. This hypothesis holds that it is impossible to beat the market, as prices in the market already incorporate and reflect all relevant information which may impact a stock. An efficient market has no impediments to the free flow of goods and services, such as trade barriers.


  13. 95. Which one of the following is agricultural income under the Income Tax Act, 1961? Interest on arrears of rent in respect of agricultural land. (2) Interest received by a money-lender in the form of agricultural produce. (3) Income from sal e of trees of forest which are of spontaneous growth and in relation to which forestry operations alone are performed 02.- Interest on capital received by'a partner from the firm engaged in agricultural operations


  14. 98. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the assessment of firms? All partnership firms formed under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, are assessed as firms under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (1) (2) Income of a firm is taxable at a flat rate of 30% without any exemption. (3) Partners' share in the income of a firm is not chargeable to tax in the hands of partners. (4) Remuneration paid to partners of a firm (assessed as such) is allowed as deduction subject to statutory limit The due date of first instalment of advance tax by assessees other than companies is: (1) 15th April (2 15th June 99. 15th September (4) 15th December


  15. Scheme of Taxation of Firms; The firm is taxed as a separate entity i.e. separate from its partners. No matter whether the firm is registered or not. 1. 2. The definition of firm includes a Limited Liability Partnership and LLP is treated same as firm. 3. The share of partners in the income of the firm is exempted, while computing his individual income or share of partners in the firm is exempted in his hand. 4. Salary, Bonus, Commission or remuneration (by whatever name called) paid /payable to partners is allowed as deduction to the firm and same will be taxable in the hand of partners. These expenses are allowed as deduction subject to certain restriction under the Income Tax Act, 1961 The interest to partners paid by firm is deductible subject to maximum rate of interest @12% pa. The amount is taxable in the hand of partners. The firm is taxed @30.9% or 33.99% (subject to net income of firm is Rs 1 Crore or exceeds Rs. 1 Crore) 5.


  16. Complete Course on UGC NET Paper I for Dec 2018 unacademy ome Explore Plus Login Signup Back to Plus Complete Course on UGC NET Paper I for Dec 2018 Navdeep Kaur 16k followers F unacademy 31st July to 11th September 2018 In this course, Navdeep Kaur will comprehensively cover entire UGC NET Paper 1 and elaborately explain topics with MCQs, which will be helpful in CBSE UGC NET/JRF Dec 2018. This course will be conducted in Hindi and content will be provided in English 45 hours of live classes Private Discussion Forums Doubt clearing sessions and Live quizzes 5,900 Includes 18% GST Apply for this Plus Course About this course o Last date to apply is 31st July In HIGH DEMAND. Cost increases on 7th July.


  17. CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 Commerce Paper 2 Part 4 Ans. Key Exam Analysis 76 to 100 MCQs


  18. Follow me on Unacademy.com Navdeep Kaur Download Unacademy App unacademy https://unacademy.com/user/navclasses/ Rate, Review, Comment, Share


  19. Statement Desianing a distribution system for a service (for-profit or non-business involves to select the parties only through which ownership will context) pass Statement (I): The owne rship channel for most of the services is long and quite complex because of inseparability characteris Statement (II) : Short channels usually mean more control on the part of the seller. ldentify the correct code of being the statements correct or incorrect. These statements relate o channel strategies of products/services. (1) Statements (1) and (II) are correct but (II) is not correct. (2) Statements () and (III) are correct but (II) is not correct. (3) Statements (I) and (II) are not correct but (III) is correct. Statements (I), (I) and (III) all are not correct.


  20. 78. An enormous collection of data on various topics from a variety of internal and external sources, compiled by a firm for its own use or for use by its clients, is called (1) Data-base (3) Data mining (2) Data warehouse Data warehousing is the electronic storage of a large amount of information by a business Data warehousing is a vital component of business intelligence that employs analytical techniques on business data. The concept of data warehousing was introduced in 1988 by IBM researchers Barry Devlin and Paul Murphy.


  21. 79. Statement (I: A form of non-store retailing that uses advertising to contact consumers s called Direct who, in turn, purchase products without visiting a retail store i selling. Statement (II: A form of non-store retailing in which personal contact between a sales person and a consumer occurs away from a retail store is called Direct Marketing In the light of above statements, identify the correct code of statements being correct or incorrect. (1) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is not correct (2) Statement (I) is not correct but Statement (II) is correct. 3 Both the statements are correct. (4) Both the statements are not correct.


  22. e of the categories of diffusion process who are deliberate fall inon ust before the average adopter n a social system. Such economic measures, rely quite a bit on 80, 34% of the customers who customers to accept an innovation in social and customers who are abovea advertisements and salesmen are Early Adopters (2) Early Majority ) Late Majority 4) Late Adopters The G. E. Business Model is explained on which one of the following parameters 2 (2) Business Attractiveness and Market Position. (4) Company's Growth rate and Industry's Position. 81. Market Attractiveness and Business Position. Industry Growth rate and Company's Market share.


  23. 82. A reduction from the list price that is offered by a seller to buyers in payment for marketing unctions the buyers will perform is known as Trade Discount 2) Functional Discount (3) Cash Discount (4) Both Trade and Functional Discount Trade discounts, also called functional discounts, are payments to distribution channel members for performing some function. Examples of these functions are warehousing and shelf stocking.


  24. the items of List- I relating to Personnel Management (PM) and Human Resource Management (HRM); and select the code of correct matching. List I List II (a) Focus of PM Development attitude by making people contribute their best (b) Focus of HRM i) Exercising it as a functional area of management. (c) Philosophy of PM ) Exercising it as humane management. (d) Philosophy of HRM (v) Profit maximization by controlling people. Code : (4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)


  25. wing statemen ecific organizational intentions about what needs to be 84. Select the correct code of the follow ts being correct or incorrect. Strategic HRM focuses on sp done while HR strategies focus on long-term I II Strategic HRM focuses on n macro concerns such as structure and culture whi le HR III Human Resource strategy decisions are derived from strategic HRM. Code: Statements I and II are correct while III is incorrect. Statements II and III are correct while I is incorrect. Statements I and III are correct while II is incorrect. All the statements are correct. (1) (3) (4)


  26. 87. Which of the following statements does not st and as a principle of compensation administration ? (L) An enterprise should have a clear -cut plan to determine differential pay level in terms of divergent job requirements People and jobs should never be mingled. The compensation system should be designed with subjectivity with respect to individual (3) skill sets exercised from time to time. (4) There should be established wage grievance handling procedures.


  27. 88. Match the items of List-I with the items of List- I relating to industrial relations and select the code of correct matching. List I List II (a) Healthy labour-management relationsIndustrial Disputes Act (b) Industrial Peace Law (i) Guiding principles for a grievance procedure (c) Industrial Democracy (d) National Commission on Labour, 1969 (iv) Voluntary arbitration and responsible (iii) Workers' participation in management trade union Code: (iV) ( j) ) iV


  28. In recent years which amo investment in India? ng the following countries has been the largest source of foreign 89. (1) Australia apan (3) China 4 Mauritius "Mauritius was the largest source of FDI in India (21.8 per cent share at market value) followed by the USA, the UK, Singapore and Japan


  29. 2. In December 1999, European commission members signed a treaty that committed them to adopting a common currency known as Euro. This is better known as (1) Treaty of Rome (3) Treaty of Lisbon 2Treaty of Maastric (4) Treaty of London The Treaty of Amsterdam, officially the Treaty of Amsterdam amending the Treaty on European Union, the Treaties establishing the European Communities and certain related acts, was signed on 2 October 1997, and entered into force on 1 May 1999; it made substantial changes to the Treaty of Maastricht, which had been signed in 1992


  30. Select the correct code of the following statenents bein Statement (1): The "law of one price 93. Select the c states that in co law of one pr to trade, ts and barthe same price when their price is expr etitive markets free of transportation dentical products sold in different countries costs and barriers so same currency ket has no impediments to the free flow of goods and services, such as trade barriers Code: (1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect. (2) Statement (II) is correct but () is incorrect. (3)Bo (4) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect. th statements (I) and (II) are correct.


  31. 93 The efficient market hypothesis (EMH) originated in the 1960s and thanks to the work of economist Eugene Fama. This hypothesis holds that it is impossible to beat the market, as prices in the market already incorporate and reflect all relevant information which may impact a stock. An efficient market has no impediments to the free flow of goods and services, such as trade barriers.


  32. 98. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the assessment of firms? All partnership firms formed under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, are assessed as firms under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (1) (2) Income of a firm is taxable at a flat rate of 30% without any exemption. (3) Partners' share in the income of a firm is not chargeable to tax in the hands of partners. (4) Remuneration paid to partners of a firm (assessed as such) is allowed as deduction subject to statutory limit The due date of first instalment of advance tax by assessees other than companies is: (1) 15th April (2 15th June 99. 15th September (4) 15th December


  33. Scheme of Taxation of Firms; The firm is taxed as a separate entity i.e. separate from its partners. No matter whether the firm is registered or not. 1. 2. The definition of firm includes a Limited Liability Partnership and LLP is treated same as firm. 3. The share of partners in the income of the firm is exempted, while computing his individual income or share of partners in the firm is exempted in his hand. 4. Salary, Bonus, Commission or remuneration (by whatever name called) paid /payable to partners is allowed as deduction to the firm and same will be taxable in the hand of partners. These expenses are allowed as deduction subject to certain restriction under the Income Tax Act, 1961 The interest to partners paid by firm is deductible subject to maximum rate of interest @12% pa. The amount is taxable in the hand of partners. The firm is taxed @30.9% or 33.99% (subject to net income of firm is Rs 1 Crore or exceeds Rs. 1 Crore) 5.


  34. Everything IS POssible Dream, believe, act, achieve Thank you! (9


  35. 7 Virtual memory is (1) an extremely large main memory (2) an extremely large secondary memory (3) an illusion of an extremely large memory (4) a type of memory used in supercomputers