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Overview of what we are going study is explain.

Tarun Kaushik
B.Tech(ECE) + MA(Pol Sc), SSB Recmnd, UPSC: NDA-CDS-CAPF(AC) Written qualified.

U
Unacademy user
good explanation but please provide ios app of UN academy please
how to improve writing speed and accuracy for civil services written exam???????
  1. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 1993-2017 Year Wise Break-Up: 1993: 14 1994: 14 1995: 17 1996: 10 1997:12 1998: 5 1999:9 2000: 12 2001:12 2002: 19 2003: 19 2004: 22 2005: 10 2006: 13 2007: 12 2008: 13 2009:14 2010: 10 2011:12 2012:20 2013: 18 2014: 13 2015: 15 2016: 5 2017: 22


  2. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 1. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to (a) The Hindu Code Bill (b) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill (c) The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill (d) The Dowry Prohibition Bill 2. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if (a) He himself is a candidate (b) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature (c) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature (d) He is a caretaker Chief Minister


  3. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 3. The abolition of the l.A.S. and the I.PS. has been recommended by the (a) Dhebar Commission (b) Kalekar Commission (c) Kher Commission (d) Rajamannar Commission 4. Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners? (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathalk (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri (c) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan (d) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan


  4. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 5. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body (b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the States (c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time (d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission. 6. The SWARAN Singh Committee considered the question of (a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu and Kashmir (b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India (c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights (d) administrative reforms


  5. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 7. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation? (a) A single citizenship (b) Three lists in the Constitution (c) Dual judiciary (d) A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution 8. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India? (a) Population control and family planning (b) Public health and sanitation (c) Capitation taxes (d) Treasure trove


  6. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 9. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct? (a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President (b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election. (c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure (d) If he intends to resign the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker 10. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court? (a) Disputes between the Centre and the States (b) Disputes between the States inter se (c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights (d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution


  7. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 11. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in (a) Kerala (b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu 12. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary control over the Budget? (a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget (b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund (c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation (d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President's recommendation


  8. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1993 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 13. Match ListI with List li and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-l (Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from) A. Fundamental Rights B. Parliamentary system of government 2. U.S.A. C. Emergency provisions 3. Ireland D. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. German Reich Codes: ABCD (a) 2451 (b)5 1 34 (c) 21 43 (d) 1 2 43 14. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true? 1. It was not based on adult franchise. 3. It was a multi-party body. 4. It worked through several committees. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c)1 and4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4 List-ll 1. U.K 5. Canada 2. It resulted from direct elections.


  9. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1994 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 15. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct? 1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President. 2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction 3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government. 4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 16. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies (b) As the Vice-president is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-president (c) A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting


  10. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1994 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 17. Freedom of the press in India (a) is specially provided in Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution (b) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1) (a) of the constitution (c) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution (d) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country 18. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as 'municipal relations'? (a) Centres control of the State in legislative sphere (b) Centres control of the State in financial matters (c) Centres control of the State in the administrative sector (d) Centre's control of the State in the planning process


  11. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1994 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 19. Which one of the following statements regarding 'Exit Poll' is correct? (a) 'Exit Poll' is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchise (b) 'Exit Poll and 'Opinion Poll' are one and the same (c) 'Exit Poll' is device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted (d) 'Exit Poll is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation 20. Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State? 1. Morarji Desai 2. Charan Singh3. V.P Singh 4. Chandrashekhar 5. PV. Narasimha Rao Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2,3 and 5 (c) 2 only (d) 4 only


  12. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1994 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 25. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? (a) A written and rigid Constitution (b) An independent Judiciary (c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre (d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States 26. Given below are voting percentages of a political party secured in three successive elections to the Lok Sabha: 1984 1989 1991 Years: Percentages of Votes: 7.4 11.4 22.4 The party which secured these percentages of votes was (a) CONGRESS (I) (c) BHARATIYA JANATA PARTY (d) COMMUNIST PARTY OF INDIA (MARXIST) (b) BAHUJAN SAMAJ PARTY


  13. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1995 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 31. Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit? (a) West Bengal and Kerala (b) Gujarat and Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa (d) Rajasthan and Karnataka 32. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India? (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission.


  14. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1995 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 37. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one half of the States? 1. Election of the President 2. Representation of States in Parliament 3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule 4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4


  15. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1995 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 38. Consider the table given below: House of People Council of States -Not more than 250 members (12 nominated + not more than 238 members from states and UTs) -Not more than 552 members (not more than 530 members from states and 2 from Anglo-Indian Community + X) Which one of the following will fit in the place marked 'X'? (a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office (b) Not more than 20 nominated members (c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories (d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament


  16. UPSC GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS 1996 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY 46. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be (a) 21 (b) 14 (c)7 (d) 6 47. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its (a) advisory jurisdiction (b) appellate jurisdiction (c) original jurisdiction (d) constitutional jurisdiction 48. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India. Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor General of free India. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true