Genitourinary Pathology
Quick practice
Question 1 of 5
A 35-year-old male has infertility. Serum analysis shows anti-sperm antibodies. What is the most likely pathogenesis behind this patient's serum finding?
A
Increase in testicular temperature
B
Dysgenesis of vas deferens
C
Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubules
D
Defect in Sertoli cell function
Get unlimited practice with NEET PG (Live) subscription
Boost your performance with adaptive practice tests
Practice every concept in the syllabus
Compare your speed and accuracy with your peers
Download the app and practice on the go